The User Cost of Money
📄 Summarized from the full manuscript · Human-reviewed for faithfulness before publication
In brief
What is the right price to put on holding money? This 1978 paper derives it from an explicit model of a consumer allocating spending over time rather than from informal reasoning: the cost of holding a given deposit is the yield given up relative to a benchmark bond, scaled down by that benchmark rate. The formula had already been proposed on intuition; the contribution is proving it correct and unique, under stated conditions including balances held fixed within a period. Why it matters: this price became the foundation for weighting different kinds of money into a single aggregate.
What this paper finds — and why it matters
This 1978 Economics Letters paper by William A. Barnett asks what the correct price of holding a monetary asset actually is – the “user cost” or equivalent rental price of the liquidity services a monetary asset provides – and derives that price rigorously from an explicit consumer optimization model rather than from informal reasoning about stocks and flows. Barnett sets up a discrete-time Fisherine intertemporal consumption-allocation model in which a representative consumer, over a planning horizon of T+1 periods, chooses paths of goods consumption, holdings of n monetary assets, and bond holdings subject to a period-by-period budget constraint; monetary assets are assumed blockwise weakly separable from the other arguments of utility, and labor supply is exogenous. Solving the period constraints backward from the terminal bond holding yields a single intertemporal wealth constraint whose left-hand side prices monetary-asset holdings each period at their user cost. For the current period this user cost reduces to p_it = p*_t (R_t - r_it)/(1+R_t), where p*_t is the aggregate price index, R_t is the yield on the benchmark bond, and r_it is the nominal own-yield on monetary asset i – the same formula Donovan (1977) had proposed on informal grounds. Barnett’s contribution is to show this formula is in fact correct and unique within an explicit optimizing model, without needing to assume any particular functional relationship between asset stocks and the service flows they yield. The formula measures the opportunity cost of holding asset i rather than the benchmark bond, deflated by the gross benchmark rate; it does not depend directly on the inflation rate, though nominal yields can be expected to embed expected inflation, and the paper notes (in a footnote) that the user cost of monetary assets relative to durables rises as expected inflation rises. As a pure theory paper, it reports no empirical estimates; its results are the derivation itself and the scope conditions – discrete time (approximating a continuous-time model over longer intervals), constant within-period portfolio stocks, end-of-period interest payment, and exogenous labor supply – under which the formula holds. This user-cost formula subsequently became the foundation for Barnett’s (1980) Divisia monetary aggregation.
Summary of a classic paper, AI-assisted and human-reviewed. See the linked original for the authoritative claims and full conditions.
Questions & answers
Q1. What problem is the paper trying to solve, and why was a firmer foundation needed?
Barnett sets out to derive, from an explicit consumer optimization model, the correct “user cost” or equivalent rental price to impute to the services of a monetary asset – because prior imputations of such a price “have not been based upon an explicit assumption structure or an explicit model” (Abstract). Without a model, there was no way to verify that a proposed user-cost formula was actually the price implied by rational intertemporal choice, or to know what assumptions it silently relied on.
Q2. What is the basic structure of the model?
The model is a discrete-time Fisherine intertemporal consumption-expenditure allocation problem in which a representative consumer, over a planning horizon of T+1 periods (t through t+T), chooses a path of goods consumption x_s, holdings of n monetary assets m_is, and bond holdings A_s to maximize a utility function u(m_t,…,m_{t+T}; x_t,…,x_{t+T}; A_{t+T}/p_{t+T}) subject to a period-by-period budget constraint* (Eq. 1). Each period’s budget constraint equates goods spending to labor income plus net proceeds from monetary assets and bonds carried over from the previous period, including their interest.
Q3. What timing and separability assumptions does the model impose, and why do they matter?
Stocks of monetary assets and bonds are held constant within each period, with portfolio adjustments occurring only at period boundaries, and interest on both bonds and monetary assets is paid at the end of each period – so interest earned during period t cannot be spent until period t+1. Labor supply is taken as exogenously given rather than chosen jointly with consumption, and monetary assets are assumed blockwise weakly separable from the other arguments of utility, meaning a subutility function over the monetary-asset vector alone is well defined. This separability assumption is what later permits treating money demand as a single-period, single-block problem in which every monetary asset’s price takes the user-cost form the paper derives (footnote 2).
Q4. How is the model’s single intertemporal wealth constraint obtained, and why is the discount-factor construction non-obvious?
The single wealth constraint (Eq. 2) is obtained by solving the period budget constraint (Eq. 1) for bond holdings A_s and back-substituting recursively from the terminal holding A_{t+T} down to A_t, producing one constraint that equates the discounted value of goods consumption plus the discounted user cost of monetary-asset holdings to discounted labor income, initial assets, and terminal bond value. The discount factor is ρ_s = 1 at s = t and ρ_s = the product of (1+R_u) for u running from t to s-1 for later periods – and Barnett flags explicitly that ρ_s is not simply the product of (1+R_u) up through period s, because R_s is paid at the start of period s+1 rather than during period s itself; getting this timing convention wrong would misstate the discounted user-cost formula.
Q5. What is the resulting current-period user-cost formula, and how should it be read economically?
Barnett shows the user cost of monetary asset i in the current period reduces to p_it = p_t (R_t - r_it) / (1 + R_t) (Eq. 3), where R_t is the benchmark bond yield, r_it is asset i’s own nominal yield, and p_t is the aggregate price index** – which the paper identifies as “the Donovan’s (1977) user cost formula.” Economically, the formula prices the opportunity cost of holding a unit of asset i instead of the benchmark bond: the forgone yield spread (R_t - r_it), deflated by the gross benchmark rate (1+R_t) and scaled up to nominal terms by the price level.
Q6. What do the formula’s limiting cases say about liquidity services?
A non-interest-bearing asset (r_it = 0) has the maximal user cost p_t · R_t/(1+R_t), while an asset that pays the benchmark rate itself (r_it = R_t) has zero user cost* – in the model’s terms, such an asset provides no liquidity services at the margin, since holding it involves no yield sacrifice relative to the pure-return bond. The formula thus ranks monetary assets by how much of the benchmark return they forgo, which is exactly the intuition the user-cost concept is meant to capture, but here it falls directly out of the optimization rather than being assumed.
Q7. What exactly does the paper prove relative to Donovan (1977), and what generality does that add?
Barnett proves that Donovan’s (1977) formula, which had been derived “by general economic reasoning without the use of a model and under the assumption that the ‘services’ of financial assets are proportional to the stocks with a unitary proportionality constant,” is in fact the correct and unique user-cost price implied by an explicit Fisherine optimization model – and that this holds without needing any assumption about the functional relationship between asset stocks and the service flows they generate. That is the paper’s precise contribution: not a new formula, but a rigorous derivation showing an existing ad hoc formula was right, and showing it is right for a more general reason than originally supposed.
Q8. Does the formula depend on expected inflation, and what does the paper say about that?
The current-period formula (3) does not enter expected inflation directly – it depends only on nominal yields R_t and r_it and the price level p_t – though the paper notes nominal interest rates “can be expected to incorporate expected inflation.”* In footnote 2, Barnett adds that because the user cost of non-monetary durables depends inversely on expected inflation, the user cost of monetary assets relative to durables rises as expected inflation rises – a relative-price implication rather than a claim that formula (3) itself contains an inflation term.
Q9. What are the model’s scope conditions and acknowledged limitations?
The model is explicitly discrete-time; the paper notes the time interval could be set as short as one day, and that the discrete model can be viewed as approximating an underlying continuous-time model when applied to empirical data collected at longer intervals. Labor supply is exogenous rather than jointly optimized, which is a simplification relative to a fully general model of consumption-leisure-money choice. And because this is a pure theory paper, it contains no data, no identification strategy, and no empirical estimates – its output is the derivation and the formula, not a quantitative application (that came later, in Barnett’s 1980 Divisia aggregation paper).
Key terms in this paper
Definitions below follow the paper's own usage.
- User cost (equivalent rental price)
- in this paper, the price that should be imputed to the flow of liquidity services from holding one unit of a monetary asset for one period -- derived from the consumer's intertemporal budget constraint rather than assumed, and shown for the current period to equal p*_t(R_t - r_it)/(1+R_t), the price level times the yield spread between the benchmark bond and the asset's own yield, deflated by the gross benchmark rate.
- Blockwise weak separability
- the assumption that the vector of monetary-asset holdings enters the consumer's utility function as a separate block from goods consumption and other arguments, so that a subutility function defined over monetary assets alone exists; the paper notes this is what permits a single-period money-demand model in which every asset's price takes the user-cost form of Eq. 3.
- Single wealth constraint (Eq. 2)
- the one intertemporal budget constraint obtained by solving the period-by-period budget constraint (Eq. 1) for bond holdings and back-substituting from the terminal period to the initial period; it expresses the discounted value of consumption plus discounted user costs of monetary assets as equal to discounted labor income plus initial and terminal asset positions.
- Discount factor ρ_s
- defined as 1 at the initial period t and as the product of (1+R_u) over u from t to s-1 for later periods s; the paper stresses this is not the same as compounding R up through period s, because interest on bonds is paid at the start of the following period rather than during the period in which the bond is held.
- Benchmark bond yield R_t
- the return on the asset A_s against which every monetary asset's opportunity cost is measured in the user-cost formula; an asset earning exactly R_t has zero user cost in the model because it provides no liquidity services beyond the pure-return benchmark.