Fiscal Imbalances and the Dynamics of Currency Crises
📄 Summarized from the full manuscript · Human-reviewed for faithfulness before publication
In brief
Why do some fiscal crises collapse a currency at once while others let a government defend its peg for months? Corsetti and Maćkowiak show the answer turns on the maturity of the debt, not the size of the fiscal gap alone. With only short-term debt the peg must break the instant bad fiscal news arrives, because printing money to delay is self-defeating: the revenue gained afterward exactly offsets the cost of the defense. With enough long-term, non-indexed bonds, anticipated inflation immediately marks them down, transferring wealth from bondholders to the government and letting the peg survive longer, until a defense rule or a run on short-term debt fixes the timing.
What this paper finds — and why it matters
This paper builds a model in which a currency crisis is triggered by a “fiscal imbalance” – a current or anticipated future decline in the present value of the government’s real primary surpluses – and studies how the size and maturity structure of the government’s outstanding nominal liabilities, rather than the size of the fiscal gap alone, determine whether and for how long a fixed exchange rate can be defended before it collapses. In a baseline economy where the government holds only short-term nominal debt, the authors derive a “razor-edge” result: if the government tries to delay a devaluation to raise seigniorage revenue after the collapse, the present value of that seigniorage exactly offsets the fiscal cost of defending the peg beforehand (the revenue lost to the pre-collapse contraction in money demand), leaving the net present value of seigniorage equal to zero – so financing a fiscal imbalance through money creation and delaying the exchange-rate adjustment turn out to be mutually inconsistent goals, and with only short-term debt outstanding the peg must break immediately, with the size of the initial devaluation pinned down by the fiscal imbalance and the stock of outstanding money and bonds. Once the model is extended to include long-term, non-indexed government bonds (perpetuities), a different channel opens: news of a future fiscal imbalance causes an immediate, unanticipated fall in the price of those bonds, transferring wealth from private bondholders to the government exactly as an unexpected devaluation would, which can let the government postpone the collapse of the peg for a time even when the net present value of seigniorage is zero, provided the outstanding stock of long-term liabilities is large enough. Government solvency alone leaves the exact date of a delayed collapse indeterminate within a finite window; adding a monetary policy rule under which the central bank defends the peg only as long as the domestic interest rate stays below some threshold pins the timing down uniquely, via a backward-induction argument analogous to Krugman’s (1979) classic model but expressed in terms of an interest-rate rather than a reserve-based defense criterion. The paper also shows that when investors can trigger a self-fulfilling run on the government’s short-term debt – a coordination failure distinct from the fiscal mechanism – the exact timing of collapse becomes genuinely indeterminate and unpredictable even though the underlying fiscal imbalance still bounds how long the peg can possibly survive. Framed explicitly as an extension of the fiscal theory of the price level to a currency-crisis setting, and as a bridge to first-generation, Krugman-style crisis models, the paper’s authors are careful to note that a precisely zero net seigniorage result is a feature of their specific model, but argue the underlying lesson – that the fiscal costs of peg defense constrain what seigniorage policy can actually achieve – is more general.
Summary of a classic paper, AI-assisted and human-reviewed. See the linked original for the authoritative claims and full conditions.
Questions & answers
Q1. What is a “fiscal imbalance” in this paper, and how does it set the model’s crisis in motion?
A fiscal imbalance is a current or anticipated future decline, of size Delta, in the present value of the government’s real primary surpluses – defined net of whatever fiscal adjustment the government is able or willing to make – and it is this shock, arriving as news at some date t, that the model traces through to a currency crisis. The paper studies “the dynamics of a currency crisis associated with a fiscal imbalance, defined as current or anticipated future decline in real primary surpluses” (Introduction), explicitly allowing the decline in surpluses to begin either immediately or at some specified future date, so that “we allow for the possibility that fiscal deficits start to deteriorate at a future date” rather than only modeling an instantaneous fiscal shock.
Q2. How does the paper position itself relative to first-generation currency-crisis models and the fiscal theory of the price level (FTPL)?
The paper explicitly builds a bridge between Krugman-style (1979) first-generation currency-crisis models, which emphasize money-financed deficits driving a predictable peg collapse, and the fiscal theory of the price level, which treats fiscal and monetary policy symmetrically as joint determinants of the price level. The authors write that their “framework reveals important links between first-generation models of currency crises after Krugman (1979) and the fiscal theory of the price level (FTPL),” noting that the fiscal shock they study “is common in the currency crises literature,” and that their setup relates to the distinction between “active” fiscal policy coupled with “passive” monetary policy from Leeper (1991) and the “non-Ricardian” policy terminology of Woodford (1995, 1996) (Introduction).
Q3. In the baseline model with only short-term debt, why must the exchange rate collapse immediately once the bad fiscal news arrives?
With only short-term nominal liabilities, the government’s intertemporal budget constraint at the fixed exchange rate fails the instant the news of the fiscal imbalance arrives, so the exchange rate must jump immediately – there is no way to defend the peg even for a single additional period. As the paper puts it, “upon the arrival of the adverse fiscal news, the government cannot defend the exchange rate parity, not even for one period. If an equilibrium in our economy exists with Delta > 0, it must be the case that the exchange rate jumps up immediately” (Section 3.2); the size of that initial jump is shown to depend negatively on the equilibrium present value of seigniorage and on the outstanding stock of government liabilities, and positively on the size of the fiscal imbalance itself.
Q4. What is the paper’s “razor-edge” seigniorage result, and why do the authors call it surprising?
The authors show that, in their baseline short-term-debt model, the present value of seigniorage the government could raise by delaying a devaluation is “somewhat surprisingly … identically equal to zero” once the fiscal cost of defending the peg beforehand is netted out. They decompose total seigniorage into revenue collected before the collapse (which is actually negative, since defending the peg entails a costly pre-collapse contraction in money demand as agents anticipate the coming devaluation) and revenue collected after it, and find these two pieces “exactly equal in present value,” so that “an attempt by the government to increase the collection of seigniorage at and after [the collapse date] will be self-defeating”: a larger target for post-collapse seigniorage revenue only produces a larger equilibrium devaluation and a more severe speculative attack beforehand, not more net revenue (Section 3.1).
Q5. Why does adding long-term nominal debt change the picture, and how does it let a government delay a currency collapse?
Long-term, non-indexed government bonds (modeled as perpetuities) create a second channel for transferring resources from the private sector to the government – an immediate fall in the bonds’ market price when bad fiscal news arrives – that does not depend on seigniorage at all, so a large enough stock of such bonds can let the peg survive even when net seigniorage is exactly zero. The paper explains that “an imbalance in the government budget that cannot be matched by seigniorage revenues requires an offsetting wealth transfer from the private to the public sector,” and that “with non-indexed bonds of long maturities, a wealth transfer can occur via an unanticipated jump in bond prices in period t” (Section 4) – because anticipated future inflation and devaluation lower the real value of the fixed nominal coupon the perpetuity promises, and that capital loss to bondholders is a resource gain to the government exactly analogous to the wealth transfer an immediate devaluation would produce.
Q6. What determines the outer limit on how long a government can postpone the collapse, before adding any monetary policy rule?
Government solvency alone bounds the delay: the paper derives a finite upper bound, denoted the date at which a currency crisis must occur, beyond which the government could not remain solvent even by exploiting the maximum feasible fiscal gain from an eventual devaluation. This upper bound depends on the stock of long-term liabilities outstanding, the size of the fiscal imbalance, and the post-collapse money growth rate; the paper notes that a crisis occurring close to this outer bound “corresponds to an extreme scenario in which, while the exchange rate is pegged, the government borrows up to the point in which the maximum fiscal gain from inflation is just enough to guarantee solvency,” and that such a solvency-driven crisis is associated with especially extreme rates of devaluation and inflation (Section 4.2). Solvency alone, however, leaves the exact date of collapse within this window undetermined.
Q7. How does adding a central-bank interest-rate rule pin down the exact, unique timing of the speculative attack?
The authors assume the central bank defends the peg for as long as it can keep the domestic nominal interest rate below a fixed threshold – equivalent, via the money-demand equation, to defending a lower bound on the money supply – and show this pins down a unique collapse date by backward induction: the government abandons the peg in the first period in which keeping the exchange rate fixed would push the interest rate to or above that threshold. They are explicit that this interest-rate rule “is closely related to the rule in Krugman (1979),” which instead posits an exogenous rate of domestic credit expansion together with a lower bound on reserves; using perfect foresight, they show individual agents “have no incentive to attack the peg too early” (since an early attack contracts money demand too little to force a collapse) and cannot profitably wait “too long” either, since the interest rate is monotonically rising over time as the collapse date approaches, so the unique equilibrium timing is “the last period in which such an attack is resisted by the authorities” (Section 4.3).
Q8. What do the paper’s “shadow exchange rate” and “shadow interest rate” show, and how do they behave around the collapse date?
The shadow exchange rate and shadow interest rate are the hypothetical exchange rate and interest rate that would prevail if the peg were abandoned in the current period, calculated at every date leading up to the actual collapse, following the concept introduced by Flood and Garber (1984). The paper’s Figure 3 traces both: when the adverse fiscal news arrives, the shadow exchange rate immediately begins depreciating and continues to do so until it coincides with the actual, pegged exchange rate exactly at the collapse date; correspondingly, the shadow interest rate jumps up on impact but stays below the central bank’s defense threshold until the period just before collapse, when it rises to meet the threshold – so that “the realized interest rate coincides with its shadow value only at” the final period before the peg breaks (Section 4.3).
Q9. Under what conditions does the size of the central bank’s reserves stop being a reliable indicator of its ability to defend the peg?
As long as the government is solvent and has full access to international financial markets, it can borrow reserves as needed to fight speculative attacks up to its solvency limit, so “the size of gross reserves at the central bank is at no time a key indicator of the government’s ability to withstand a speculative attack” (Section 4.4). This changes only once credit constraints bind – for instance statutory limits on debt and deficits, or a coordination failure among the government’s own creditors – at which point the stock of reserves relative to short-term liabilities becomes decisive, since the government can no longer simply borrow its way past a run.
Q10. Under what conditions does the model instead generate a self-fulfilling, unpredictable run on public debt?
When many small holders of short-term government debt each decide independently whether to roll over their loans or convert them into foreign currency, a coordination failure can produce a self-fulfilling run: if every agent expects others to keep rolling over their debt, no one runs and the peg survives, but if every agent instead expects a run, each individual’s best response is to run too, forcing an immediate devaluation once debt sales exceed the central bank’s reserves. The paper models this “in the presence of a fiscal imbalance,” so that “a run on public debt can force a devaluation as soon as the stock of short-run nominal liabilities of the government is at least as large as the stock of reserves,” with the exact timing of such a run left genuinely indeterminate – “the run prevents the government from borrowing additional reserves for peg defense,” and while the fiscal imbalance still guarantees some collapse by the model’s solvency-driven upper bound, “the exact timing is subject to indeterminacy, and is therefore unpredictable” (Section 4.4).
Q11. What do the authors identify as the paper’s main lessons for thinking about the fiscal costs of defending a currency peg?
The authors conclude that fiscal and monetary policy should be viewed symmetrically as joint determinants of the price level and exchange rate in the spirit of the FTPL, that the maturity structure of government liabilities is a first-order determinant of whether and how long a peg can be defended, and that – while their precise zero-net-seigniorage result is a feature of this specific model – the broader lesson that “the costs of peg defense will still constrain feasible seigniorage policies, increasing endogenously the revenue need of the government” is more general. They close by flagging “these costs and their equilibrium implications for policy and exchange rate stability as important topics for future research” (Conclusions), positioning the paper as a foundational step rather than a final word on how fiscal imbalances propagate into currency crises.
Key terms in this paper
Definitions below follow the paper's own usage.
- Fiscal imbalance
- the paper's term for the shock that triggers a currency crisis -- a current or anticipated future decline in the present value of the government's real primary surpluses, defined as the net decrease Delta that remains "after the government has taken all fiscal measures it deemed feasible to reverse the impact of the original shock," so that Delta is treated as a datum monetary authorities and private agents must take as given rather than something fiscal policy will subsequently undo.
- Zero-net-seigniorage ("razor-edge") result
- the paper's finding that, in the baseline model with only short-term nominal debt, the present value of seigniorage collected before a delayed peg collapse (the fiscal cost of defending the peg, arising from the pre-collapse contraction in money demand) exactly offsets, and is "somewhat surprisingly identically equal to zero" in net terms against, the present value of seigniorage collected after the collapse -- so that attempting to finance a fiscal imbalance via seigniorage while also delaying a devaluation are mutually inconsistent goals.
- Shadow exchange rate and shadow interest rate
- following Flood and Garber (1984), the hypothetical exchange rate (and corresponding interest rate) that would prevail if the government abandoned the peg in the current period, calculated at every date before the actual collapse; the paper uses the gap between the shadow exchange rate and the currently pegged rate, and the corresponding gap between the shadow and actual interest rate, to pin down by backward induction the unique period in which a rational, perfect-foresight speculative attack occurs.
- Interest-rate defense rule
- the paper's assumption about central bank behavior -- that the monetary authority defends the currency peg for as long as it can keep the domestic nominal interest rate below some fixed threshold, equivalent by the money demand equation to a lower bound on the money supply -- which the authors present as a generalization of the exogenous domestic-credit-growth-plus-reserve-floor rule in Krugman (1979) to an explicit interest-rate-based defense criterion.
- Self-fulfilling run on public debt
- an alternative mechanism, distinct from the paper's baseline fiscal-imbalance channel, in which a coordination problem among many small holders of short-term government debt -- each deciding whether to roll over loans to the government or convert them to foreign currency -- can produce a self-fulfilling run that forces an immediate devaluation once the stock of short-term liabilities exceeds the central bank's reserves, with the exact date of the run left indeterminate even though the government's underlying fiscal imbalance makes some collapse, by some finite date, ultimately inevitable.